Areas of Law / Property

My wife and I bought our present house in 1982 and I see that it was conveyed to us as “tenants in common.” We feel it would now be appropriate for us to hold the property as “joint tenants”. Would it be legally recognised if we drew up a document ourselves changing the form of ownership to joint tenants?

If your property is registered and there are no charges on it, such as a mortgage, you may be able to deal with this yourself by drawing up a declaration and notifying the Land Registry of the change to your title deeds. However there may be a good reason why your solicitor made you tenants in common (perhaps this is your second marriage?) and if you’’re not sure what the difference is I recommend you talk to your solicitor in any case.

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